What is 9 - 10 as a decimal number

Answer:

hope this will help

if correct please give brainliest

Answer:

The area if the triangle is 15 yd^2

Step-by-step explanation:

The formula to find the area if a triangle is base × height ÷ 2. So for this question it is 10×3÷2=15

Answer:

it's going to be c

Step-by-step explanation:

set a is an exponential function and the values increase at a faster rate than set B

Answer:

Your answer would be 3.4

Step-by-step explanation:

I would explain but it seems like you in a hurry for the answer so I'm just going to give you the answer hope you get a %100 on whatever your doing!!

Please mark brainly!

Answer:

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]16[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

[tex] {x}^{2} - 8x + c[/tex]

[tex] {x}^{2} + c - 8x[/tex]

To find the c value [tex]c = ( \frac{b}{2})^{2} [/tex] , divide the coefficient of x by 2 and square the result.

[tex]( - 1 \times 4 {)}^{2} [/tex]

[tex]( - 4 {)}^{2} [/tex]

[tex]16[/tex]

Answer:

216 cm²

Step-by-step explanation:

Applying,

V = lwh..................... Equation 1

Where V = volume of the cubiod, l = length of the base, width of the base, h = heigth of the cubiod.

From the question,

Since the base of the cubiod is squared,

Therefore,

w = l = 4 cm, V = 400 cm³

Substitute these values into equation 1

400 = 4×4×h

h = 400/(4×4)

h = 25 cm

A = lw+lh+wh.................. Equation 1

Where A = surface area of the cuboid.

Given: l = 4 cm. w = 4 cm, h = 25 cm

Substitute these values into equation 1

A = (4×4)+(4×25)+(4×25)

A = 16+100+100

A = 216 cm²

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Explanation:

We're told that "The black trapezoid is a dilation of the green trapezoid". This means the black trapezoid is the image, while the green one is the preimage. In other words, the green is the "before" and the black is the "after". The mapping is [tex]\text{green} \to \text{black}[/tex] because of the ordering [tex]\text{preimage} \to \text{image}[/tex]

Since the green figure (preimage) is larger than the black figure (image), the scale factor must be some value k such that 0 < k < 1. That narrows the answer choices between A and B.

Focus on the green trapezoid. The bottom left corner is at (-10,0). The bottom right corner is at (5,0). The distance between these two points is 15 units.

Using the same idea, the distance along the bottom edge of the black trapezoid is 3 units. We can count out the spaces along the bottom, or we can note the two bottom corners are at (-2,0) and (1,0).

------------------------------

So far we found:

These two edges correspond to one another. We divide the values to get the scale factor. We divide the image length over its corresponding preimage length.

scale factor = (image length)/(preimage length)

scale factor = 3/15

scale factor = 1/5

Step-by-step explanation:

2

57

65

566

77788

66777

66788

67899

6789

78899

789999

88889

8888888

788889

888888999999999

Answer:

30+ X = 52

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

x+30=52

or 52-30

Step-by-step explanation:

I know 2nd grade math.

Subtract 30 from 52.

Answer:

37 ft

Step-by-step explanation:

The ladder forms a right triangle as it elan's against the wall of the boat house.

Thus, the length of the ladder can be determined using Pythagorean theorem.

c² = a² + b²

c = length of ladder

a = 35 ft

b = 12 ft

Plug in the values

c² = 35² + 12²

c² = 1,225 + 144

c² = 1,369

c = √1,369

c = 37

Therefore, to reach the roof of the boathouse, the length of the ladder = 37 ft

Answer:

0.75≠100.4

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

[tex]a'=4.5[/tex]

[tex]b'=7.5[/tex]

[tex]c'=9[/tex]

[tex]d'=12[/tex]

[tex]e'=15[/tex]

Step-by-step explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Sides of Polygon 1

 a=3

 b=5

 c=6

 d=8

 e=10

Perimeter of polygon 2 P_2=48

Generally the equation for Polygon 1 is mathematically given by

 P_1=a+b+c+d+e

 P_1=3+5+6+8+10

 P_1=32

Generally the sides of similar polygon with Perimeter P_2=48 is mathematically given by

Side\ of\ polygon\ 2 =\frac{side\ of\ polygon\ 1}{perimeter\ of\ polygon\ 1}*perimeter\ of\ polygon\ 2

Therefore

[tex]a'=\frac{a}{P_1}*P_2\\a'=\frac{3}{32}*48[/tex]

[tex]a'=4.5[/tex]

[tex]b'=\frac{b}{P_1}*P_2\\b'=\frac{5}{32}*48[/tex]

[tex]b'=7.5[/tex]

[tex]c'=\frac{c}{P_1}*P_2\\c'=\frac{6}{32}*48[/tex]

[tex]c'=9[/tex]

[tex]d'=\frac{d}{P_1}*P_2\\d'=\frac{8}{32}*48[/tex]

[tex]d'=12[/tex]

[tex]e'=\frac{e}{P_1}*P_2\\e'=\frac{10}{32}*48[/tex]

[tex]e'=15[/tex]

Answer:

t_n =a +(n-1)d

t_100 = 2+ (100-1)6

= 2+99× 6

= 2 +594

= 596

Answer:

276.3cm²

Step-by-step explanation:

The lateral surface area is the area of all the sides of a 3-dimensional object excluding its base and top.

A can is in the shape of a cylinder

Lateral surface area of a cylinder = 2πrh

π = pi = 3.14

h = height = 11

r = radius = 4

2 x 3.14 x 4 x 11 = 276.32 cm²

to the nearest tenth = 276.3 cm²

the tenth is the first number after the decimal place. To convert to the nearest tenth, look at the number after the tenth (the hundredth). If the number is greater or equal to 5, add 1 to the tenth figure. If this is not the case, add zero

Answer:

both jars contain 12 marbles

for the first jar the probability is 4/12 which is 33%

for the second jar the probability is 6/12 which is 50%

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

1/6

Step-by-step explanation:

theres 12 mables in each jar in this situation.

Answer:

Hi

Good

I think its the second but i'm not sure because there are no measurements

Good luck

Answer:

2 cm

Step-by-step explanation:

V=πr2h = 20π

-π                -π

r2h = 20

h= 5

r2(5) = 20

/5         /5

r2=4

/2  /2

r=2cm

(my work is complicated, but trust me 2 cm is the answer)  

Answer:

28 of the student do not snowboard

Step-by-step explanation:

Answer:

One investor should make ABOUT $28714.29 while the other will make about $38285.71

Step-by-step explanation:

67000 x 3/7 =28714.285...

67000 x 4/7 = 38285.714....

Answer:

D

Step-by-step explanation:

To get from ΔXYZ (the figure on the right) to ΔX′Y′Z′ (the figure on the left), each point is translated left 6 units and down 1.

Movement left and right is related to the x-axis. So moving 6 units left (in a negative direction) is x - 6.

Movement up and down is related to the y-axis. So going down (in the negative direction) is y - 1.

Annually compoudning interest formula

PV(1+i)ⁿ

4000(1+.0775)¹⁰=8437.869021

which rounds to

$8437.87

If you were to do this on a financial calculator it would look like this:

N=10

I/Y=7.75

PV=4000

PMT=0

CMPT FV = same answer

Answer:

Any number greater than 12 but not including 12

Step-by-step explanation:

hope it helps u

FOLLOW MY ACCOUNT PLS PLS

Answer:

this is a very easy question all you have to know is your times table.

the working is shown below:

12

×4

--------

48

---------

OR

------

12×4= 48

Answer:

Its A for the function that represents the geomertric sequence

Answer:

153.86

Step-by-step explanation:

formula - πr²

= 3.14 * 7²

= 153.86

Answer:

x = 4

( if you need a better explanation ask me and i'll give you a different one) :)

Step-by-step explanation:

15 x b = 60

15 x b divided by 15 = 60 divided by 15 to get the 15 from one side to the other

x=4

Answer:

I believe the answer is 5/1.

Step-by-step explanation:

Please don't hate me if I'm wrong!!!!!

The formula for finding slope is rise/run. Since you rise up 5 times and run once across the line, the slope is 5/1.

IT WOULD BE FANTABULOUSLY SWEET IF I COULD GET BRAINLIEST!!!!!!

Answer:

D 68

Step-by-step explanation:

I think that's the answer

Answer:

71

Step-by-step explanation:

3×3 = 9

5×6 = 30

4 × 8 = 32

30+32+9= 71

Answer:

The  median of the distribution is (first option);

1

Step-by-step explanation:

The values on the given table are presented as follows;

[tex]\begin{array}{cccccc}Value \ of \ Spin&0&1&2&5&10\\Probability&0.4&0.2&0.2&0.1&0.1\end{array}[/tex]

To find the median, we calculate the cumulative probabilities to find the value of the spin art which the cumulative probability is 0.5 as follows;

Cumulative probability, starting from the left, is therefore;

Probability for spin of 0, 0.4 + Probability for spin of 1, 0.2 = 0.6

Therefore, given that the probability of 0.5 occurs within the Value of Spin 1, the median of the probability distribution is 1

The median value of the distribution of X is 1

The cumulative probability of the distribution is:

[tex]\sum E(x) = 1[/tex]

The median position is calculated as:

[tex]Median = \frac{\sum E(x)}{2}[/tex]

This gives

[tex]Median = \frac{1}{2}[/tex]

Median = 0.5 th

This mean that the median is at the 0.5th position

The value of the spin at the 0.5th position is 1

Hence, the median value of the distribution of X is 1

Read more about median at:

https://brainly.com/question/14532771

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