plsssssss help me here​

Answer:

The explanation according to the given query is summarized in the explanation segment below.

Explanation:

Answer:

(a) the reversible power output of turbine is 5810 kw

(b) The second-law efficiency of he turbine = 86.05%

Explanation:

In state 1: the steam has a pressure of 6 MPa and 600°C. Obtain the enthalpy and entropy at this state.

h1 = 3658 kJ/kg s1=7.167 kJ/kgK

In state 2: the steam has a pressure of 50 kPa and 100°C. Obtain the enthalpy and entropy at this state

h2 = 2682kl/kg S2= 7.694 kJ/kg

Assuming that the energy balance equation given  

Wout=m [h1-h2+(v1²-v2²) /2]

Let

W =5 MW

V1= 80 m/s  V2= 140 m/s

h1 = 3658kJ/kg  h2 = 2682 kJ/kg

∴5 MW x1000 kW/ 1 MW =m [(3658-2682)+ ((80m/s)²-(140m/s)²)/2](1N /1kg m/ s²) *(1KJ/1000 Nm)

m = 5.158kg/s

Consider the energy balance equation given  

Wrev,out =Wout-mT0(s1-s2)

Substitute Wout =5 MW m = 5.158kg/s 7

s1=  7.167 kJ/kg-K            s2= 7.694kJ/kg-K and 25°C .

Wrev,out=(5 MW x 1000 kW /1 MW) -5.158x(273+25) Kx(7.167-7.694)

= 5810 kW

(a) Therefore, the reversible power output of turbine is 5810 kw.

The given values of quantities were substituted and the reversible power output are calculated.

(b) Calculating the second law efficiency of the turbine:  

η=Wout/W rev,out

Let Wout =  5 MW and Wrev,out = 5810 kW  

η=(5 MW x 1000 kW)/(1 MW *5810)  

η= 86.05%

Answer:

1709.07 ft^3/s

Explanation:

Annual peak streamflow = Log10(Q [ft^3/s] )

mean = 1.835

standard deviation = 0.65

Probability of levee been overtopped in the next 15 years = 1/5

Determine the design flow ins ft^3/s

P₁₅ = 1 - ( q )^15 = 1 - ( 1 - 1/T )^15 = 0.2

                         ∴  T = 67.72 years

Q₁₅ = 1 - 0.2 = 0.8

Applying Lognormal distribution : Zt = mean + ( K₂ * std ) --- ( 1 )

K₂ = 2.054 + ( 67.72 - 50 ) / ( 100 - 50 ) * ( 2.326 - 2.054 )

    = 2.1504

back to equation 1

Zt = 1.835 + ( 2.1504 * 0.65 )  = 3.23276

hence:

Log₁₀ ( Qt(ft^3/s) ) = Zt  = 3.23276

hence ; Qt = 10^3.23276

                  = 1709.07 ft^3/s

Answer:

b. 828

Explanation:

UDL = 2.6 - 0.3 [5.5] - 0.02 [ 21 ] = 0.53

USR = 0.7 - 0.3 [5.5 / 2 ] - 0.04 [ 21 ] = -0.69

UB = -0.3 [ 1.25 ] - 0.01 = -0.645

Psr = [tex]\frac{e^{-0.53} }{e^{-0.53} + e^{-0.69} + e^{-0.645} }[/tex]

Solving the equation we get 0.184.

Number of people who will take shared ride is:

0.184 * 4500 = 828 approximately.

Answer:

8.6 ft³/s

Explanation:

The force due to the water jet F = mv where m = mass flow rate = ρQ where ρ = density of water = 62.4 lbm/ft³ and Q = volume flow rate. v = velocity of water jet = 30 ft/s

So, F = mv

F = ρQv

making Q subject of the formula, we have

Q = F/ρv

Since F = force due to water jet = force needed to hold the plate against the water stream = 500 lbf = 500 × 1 lbf = 500 × 32.2 lbmft/s² = 16100 lbmft/s²

Since

Q = F/ρv

Substituting the values of the variables into the equation for Q, we have

Q = F/ρv

Q = 16100 lbmft/s²/(62.4 lbm/ft³ × 30 ft/s)

Q = 16100 lbmft/s²/1872 lbm/ft²s

Q = 8.6 ft³/s

So, the volume flow rate is 8.6 ft³/s.

Actions violated:

Actions to be taken:

Edit: Use these to write your paragraph.

Answer:

The pseudocode is as follows:

Input SalesAmount

Input CommissionRate

CommissionEarned= SalesAmount * (CommissionRate/100)

Print CommissionEarned

Explanation:

This gets input for SalesAmount

Input SalesAmount

This gets input for CommissionRate

Input CommissionRate

This calculates the CommissionEarned

CommissionEarned= SalesAmount * (CommissionRate/100)

This prints the calculated CommissionEarned

Print CommissionEarned

Complete Question

Complete Question is attached below.

Answer:

[tex]V'=5m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

From the question we are told that:

Diameter [tex]d=0.10m[/tex]

Power [tex]P=4.0kW[/tex]

Head loss [tex]\mu=10m[/tex]

 [tex]\frac{P_1}{\rho g}+\frac{V_1^2}{2g}+Z_1+H_m=\frac{P_2}{\rho g}+\frac{V_2^2}{2g}+Z_2+\mu[/tex]

 [tex]\frac{300*10^3}{\rho g}+35+Hm=\frac{500*10^3}{\rho g}+15+10[/tex]

 [tex]H_m=(\frac{200*10^3}{1000*9.8}-10)[/tex]

 [tex]H_m=10.39m[/tex]

Generally the equation for Power is mathematically given by

 [tex]P=\rho gQH_m[/tex]

Therefore

 [tex]Q=\frac{P}{\rho g H_m}[/tex]

 [tex]Q=\frac{4*10^4}{1000*9.81*10.9}[/tex]

 [tex]Q=0.03935m^3/sec[/tex]

Since

 [tex]Q=AV'[/tex]

Where

 [tex]A=\pi r^2\\A=3.142 (0.05)^2[/tex]

 [tex]A=7.85*10^{-3}[/tex]

Therefore

 [tex]V'=\frac{0.03935m^3/sec}{7.85*10^{-3}}[/tex]

 [tex]V'=5m/s[/tex]

Answer:

The physical topology addresses how devices are connected, while a logical topology addresses how devices actually communicate to one another ( C )

Explanation:

Network physical is simply the process/method of connecting the Network using cables while Logical topology is the general architecture of the communication mechanism in the network for all nodes.

Hence The correct statement is the physical topology addresses how devices are connected, while a logical topology addresses how devices actually communicate to one another

Answer:

International Film Festival

Judging the best best film:

a. The probability that out of five judges (random sample),  three are in favor of film FA is:

= 33%.

b. The demerits of classical probability are:

1. Classical probability can only be used with events that have definite numbers of possible outcomes.  

2. Classical probability can only handle events where each outcome is equally likely.

3. Classical probability is based on the assumption of linear relationship (which is not always true in real life) between the latent variable and observed scores.

Explanation:

a) Number of judges = 11

Number of judges in favor of FA film = 6

Number of judges in favor of FB film = 5

Probability of judges in favor of FA film = 6/11

Probability of judges in favor of FB film = 5/11

Random sample of judges = 5

Probability that out of five judges, three are in favor of film FA = 3/5 * 6/11

= 18/55

= 33%

b) Classical probability is the simple probability showing that each event has equal chance of happening.  It can be contrasted with empirical probability that is obtained from experiments.

Solution :

The spring is expanded by 2 times of the block when it moves down an inclined by x times.

Here, [tex]$x_1$[/tex] = 39 mm

        [tex]x_2[/tex] = 225 mm

a). From the work energy principal,

   Work forces = kinetic energy

[tex]$(mg \sin 50^\circ)\times \frac{99}{1000}-(\mu_k mg \cos 50^\circ) \times \frac{99}{1000} -\frac{1}{2}k(0.225^2 - 0.039^2)=\frac{1}{2}m(V^2_2-0.08^2)$[/tex]

[tex]$(112.6 \times 0.099)-(14.17 \times 0.099)-4.91= 7.5(V^2_2-0.08^2)$[/tex]

[tex]$9.75= 7.5(V^2_2-0.08^2)$[/tex]

[tex]$1.3= V^2_2-0.08^2$[/tex]

[tex]$V_2=1.14\ m/s$[/tex]

b). calculating the distance travelled by the block before it comes to rest.

Substitute the value of [tex]V_2[/tex] in (1),

[tex]$-(\mu_kmg \cos 50^\circ)x + (mg \sin 50^\circ)x-\frac{1}{2}k\left( ( 2x+0.039)^2 - 0.039^2\right)= -\frac{1}{2}m(0.08)^2$[/tex]

[tex]$-14.17x+112.6x - 100(4x^2+0.156x)=-0.048$[/tex]

[tex]$98.43x - 100(4x^2+0.156x)+0.048=0$[/tex]

[tex]$98.43x - 400x^2-15.6x+0.048=0$[/tex]

[tex]$82.83x - 400x^2+0.048=0$[/tex]

[tex]$ 400x^2- 82.83x-0.048=0$[/tex]

x = 0.20 m

Answer:

a)  Vr = - a^2/r cosθ  + aß / r

    Vθ = 1/r [ -a^2/r * sinθ ]

b) attached below

Explanation:

potential function

Ø= a^2 /r  cosØ + aßlnr ----- ( 1 )

a = radius ,  ß = constant

a) Expressions for Vr and Vθ

Vr =  dØ / dr  ----- ( 2 )

hence expression : Vr = - a^2/r cosθ  + aß / r

Vθ = 1/r dØ / dθ ------ ( 3 )

back to equation 1

dØ / dr = - a^2/r sinθ + 0  --- ( 4 )

Resolving equations 3 and 4

Vθ = 1/r [ -a^2/r * sinθ ]

b) expression for stream function

attached below

Answer:

a. unit of length: [L]

b. unit of volume: [[tex]L^3[/tex]]

c. unit of pressure:[tex]P=\frac{F}{A} \equiv\frac{[MLT^{-2}]}{[L^2]}[/tex] [tex][ML^{-1}T^{-2}][/tex]

d. unit of power: [tex]N.m.s^{-1}\equiv [ML^2T^{-3}][/tex]

e. unit of force: [tex][kg.m/s^2]\equiv [MLT^{-2}][/tex]

f. unit of power: [tex]N.m.s^{-1}\equiv [ML^2T^{-3}][/tex]

Force: [tex]F=m.a=m.\frac{v}{t}=m.\frac{x}{t}\div t[/tex]

Power: [tex]P=\frac{W}{t}=\frac{F.x}{t}[/tex]

where:

F = force

A = area

W = work

t = time

a = acceleration

v = velocity

x = displacement

1.5 nautical miles per 1,000 feet

Answer:

1.49 mm

Explanation:

The modulus of elasticity, Y = stress/strain = σ/ε

σ = F/A where F = load = 68 kN = 68 × 10³ N and A = cross-sectional area of rod = πd²/4 where d = diameter of rod = 3 cm = 3 × 10⁻² m.

ε = ΔL/L where ΔL = change in length of the circular rod and L = length of circular rod = 3.1 ,

So, Y = σ/ε

Y = F/A ÷ ΔL/L

Y = FL/AΔL

making the change in length ΔL subject of the formula, we have

ΔL = FL/AY

substituting the value of A into the equation, we have

So, ΔL = FL/(πd²/4)Y

ΔL = 4FL/πd²Y

Since Y = 200 GPa = 200 × 10⁹ Pa

Substituting the values of the variables into the equation, we have

ΔL = 4FL/πd²Y

ΔL = 4 × 68 × 10³ N × ×3.1 m/[π(3 × 10⁻²m)² × 200 × 10⁹ Pa]

ΔL = 843.2 × 10³ Nm/[9π × 10⁻⁴m² × 200 × 10⁹ Pa]

ΔL = 843.2 × 10³ Nm/[1800π × 10⁵ N]

ΔL = 843.2 × 10³ Nm/5654.87 × 10⁵ N

ΔL = 0.149 × 10⁻² m

ΔL = 1.49 × 10⁻³ m

ΔL = 1.49 mm

The change in length of the circular rod is 1.49 mm

The values of Is and V are as: (a) [tex]Is = 2.34 \times 10^{-11} A[/tex] and V = 0.581 V. (b) [tex]Is = 4.56 \times 10^{-15} A[/tex] and V = 0.516 V. (c) [tex]Is = 1.18 \times 10^{-16} A\\[/tex] and V = 0.459 V. (d) [tex]Is = 2.34 \times 10^{-11} A[/tex] and V = 0.581 V.

The relation between the current and voltage of a diode is given by the Shockley diode equation. It is an exponential function and can be given by the following equation:

[tex]I = Is \times (e^{V/Vt} - 1)[/tex]

Where

(a)

Given that:

V = 0.700 V

And I = 1.00 A.

Substituting these values in the equation above to get,

[tex]1.00 A = Is \times (e^{0.700 V / 0.025 V} - 1)\\Is = 2.34 \times 10^{-11} A[/tex]

The terminal voltage at 10% of the measured current can be found by substituting I = 0.1 A in the above equation and solving for V as:

V = 0.581 V.

(b)

Given that:

V = 0.650 V

And, I = 1.00 mA.

Substituting these values in the equation above to get,

[tex]1.00 mA = Is \times (e^{0.650 V / 0.025 V} - 1)\\ Is = 4.56 \times 10^{-15} A[/tex]

The terminal voltage at 10% of the measured current can be found by substituting I = 0.1 mA in the above equation and solving for V as:

V = 0.516 V.

(c)

Given that:

V = 0.650 V

And, I = 10 μA.

Substituting these values in the equation above to get,

[tex]10 \mu A = Is \times (e^{0.650 V / 0.025 V} - 1)\\Is = 1.18 \times 10^{-16} A[/tex]

The terminal voltage at 10% of the measured current can be found by substituting I = 1 μA in the above equation and solving for V as:

V = 0.459 V.

(d)

Given that:

V = 0.700 V

And, I = 100 mA.

Substituting these values in the equation above to get,

[tex]100 \ mA = Is \times (e^{0.700 V / 0.025 V} - 1)\\Is = 2.34 \times 10^{-11} A[/tex]

The terminal voltage at 10% of the measured current can be found by substituting I = 10 mA in the above equation and solving for V as:

V = 0.581 V.

So, the values of Is and V are as: (a) [tex]Is = 2.34 \times 10^{-11} A[/tex] and V = 0.581 V. (b) [tex]Is = 4.56 \times 10^{-15} A[/tex] and V = 0.516 V. (c) [tex]Is = 1.18 \times 10^{-16} A\\[/tex] and V = 0.459 V. (d) [tex]Is = 2.34 \times 10^{-11} A[/tex] and V = 0.581 V.

Learn more about Terminal voltage here:

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Answer:

The gage and absolute pressures are 900 and 1001 kilopascals, respectively.

Explanation:

The gage pressure ([tex]P_{g}[/tex]), in kilopascals, is the difference between absolute ([tex]P_{abs}[/tex]) and atmospheric pressures ([tex]P_{atm}[/tex]), measured in kilopascals. If we know that [tex]P_{g} = 900\,kPa[/tex] and [tex]P_{atm} = 101\,kPa[/tex], then the gage and absolute pressures are, respectively:

[tex]P_{g} = 900\,kPa[/tex]

[tex]P_{abs} = P_{atm} + P_{g}[/tex]

[tex]P_{abs} = 101\,kPa + 900\,kPa[/tex]

[tex]P_{abs} = 1001\,kPa[/tex]

The gage and absolute pressures are 900 and 1001 kilopascals, respectively.

Explanation:

ask your dad please and use your brain

Answer:

you are right but then you ddnt ask a question

Answer:

a) -505.229 kJ/Kg

b) -1.724 kJ/kg

Explanation:

T1 = 400°C

P1 = 3 MPa

P2 = 125 kPa

work output   = 530 kJ/kg

surrounding temperature = 20°C = 293 k

A) Calculate heat transfer from Turbine to surroundings

Q = h2 + w - h1

h ( enthalpy )

h1 = 3231.229 kj/kg

enthalpy at P2

h2 = hg = 2676 kj/kg

back to equation 1

Q = 2676 + 50 - 3231.229  = -505.229 kJ/Kg  ( i.e.  heat is lost )

b) Entropy generation

entropy generation = Δs ( surrounding )  + Δs(system)

                                =  - 505.229 / 293   + 0

                                = -1.724 kJ/kg  

Answer:

The right answer is "1.903 m".

Explanation:

Given that,

[tex]\tau =110 \ MPa[/tex]

[tex]G=80 \ GPa[/tex]

[tex]\Theta=15\times \frac{\pi}{180}[/tex]

   [tex]=\frac{\pi}{12}[/tex]

[tex]d=20 \ mm[/tex]

As we know,

⇒ [tex]\frac{\tau}{r}=\frac{G \Theta}{L}[/tex]

Or,

⇒ [tex]L=\frac{G \theta r}{\tau}[/tex]

       [tex]=\frac{80\times 10^3}{110}\times \frac{\pi}{12}\times 10[/tex]

       [tex]=1903.9 \ mm[/tex]

or,

       [tex]=1.903 \ m[/tex]

Answer:

The right answer is "2.2099 m³".

Explanation:

Given:

Mass,

m = 5 kg

Temperature,

T = 35℃

or,

  = 35 + 273

Pressure,

P = 200 kPa

Gas constant,

R = 0.2870 kj/kgK

By using the ideal gas equation,

The volume will be:

⇒ [tex]PV=mRT[/tex]

or,

⇒    [tex]V=\frac{mRT}{P}[/tex]

By substituting the values, we get

          [tex]=\frac{5(0.2870)(35+273)}{200}[/tex]

          [tex]=\frac{441.98}{200}[/tex]

          [tex]=2.2099 \ m^3[/tex]

Answer:

a. Rockwell              3. hardness

b. Instron                 2. stress vs strain

c. Charpy                 1. impact strength

d. Fatigue                4. Endurance Limit

e. Brinell                  3. hardness

f. Izod                      1. impact strength

Explanation:

Izod and Charpy are the impact strength testing procedure of a material in which a heavy hammer is attached to an arm is released to impact on the test specimen. In Izod test the specimen with v-notch is held vertical with the notch facing outward while in Charpy test the specimen is supported horizontally with notch facing inward to the impacting hammer.

Instron testing system does universal testing of the material which gradually applies the load recording all the stresses and the corresponding strains until the material fails.

Fatigue is the property of a material due to which it fails under the repeated cyclic loading by the initiation and propagation of cracks. The property of a material resist failure subjected to infinite number of repeated cyclic loads below a certain stress limit.

Rockwell and Brinell are the hardness testing methods. In Rockwell test an intender ball is firstly pressed against the specimen using minor load for a certain time and then a major load is pressed against it for a certain time. After the intender is removed the depth of impression on the surface is measured while in case of Brinell hardness we apply only one load against the intender ball for a certain time and after its removal the radius of impression is measured.

Answer:

there are generally two types of toilet bowl types- round and elongated.

Answer:

The answer is "15 N".

Explanation:

Please find the complete question in the attached file.

In frame B:

For just slipping:

[tex]\to \frac{P}{2} \cos \theta =mg \sin \theta\\\\\to P=2 mg \tan \theta \\\\[/tex]

        [tex]=2 \times 1 \times g \times \tan 37^{\circ}\\\\ =2 \times 10 \times \frac{3}{4}\\\\ =15 \ N[/tex]

Answer:

Hence the given statement is false.

Explanation:

For low-speed subsonic wind tunnels, the air density remains nearly constant decreasing the cross-section area cause the flow to extend velocity, and reduce pressure. Similarly increasing the world cause to decrease and therefore the pressure to extend.

The speed within the test section is decided by the planning of the tunnel.  

Thus by adjusting the pressure difference won't change the worth of test section velocity.

Answer:

The given statement is false .

Answer:

embroidery scissor

Explanation:

is small, sharp and pointed good for fine work use trimming scallops,clipping threads,and cutting large eyelets.

hope this helps

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Yes it is true that the Temperature gradient would also decrease with magnitude just as the distances rise from the centre line.

We have this cylinder equation as

[T1-T2 / ln(r1-r2)]2πKL

The radial distance is r2-r1

The gradient of temperature is T1-T2

From the equation,

The temperature gradient has a direct and proportional relationship to radial distance

T1-T2 ∝ ln(r2-r1)

1/T1-T2 = k(r2-r1)

This inverse relationship above confirms that the statement is true